CHAPTER THREE

 

 

3:ALL:  The claim is often made that the expression “the Law,” as used in the Third Chapter of Romans, has reference to the entire Jewish system of Laws, including circumcision, sacrificial offerings, etcetera, as well as the Ten Commandments (the purpose of this claim being to rid oneself from the condemnation, or obligation of/to “the Law”).  To have just read Chapter 2, of the Book of Romans (especially verses 18-27 where you must understand that you cannot “transgress” that which does not exist) and therefore come to such a conclusion of canceling God’s Law, is to ignore the rest of Scripture.

 

No one will question that “the Law” refers to the same thing in every instance in this Chapter, whatever that reference or thing may be.  It is stoutly affirmed that “the Law” here has reference to the whole Law system of the Jews, with no distinction as to moral and or ceremonial.

 

Also in this Chapter, where the expression “the Law” is used nine times (verses 19 [twice], 20 [twice], 21 [twice], 27, 28, 31 [twice]), it is affirmed to have reference to the entire Law (especially in verses 20 & 21), of which the Ten Commandments formed only a part.  The same claim is made with reference to the expression as it occurs in verse 28, where Paul draws the conclusion from his argument.  He states: “Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the Law.”  Meaning, as long as you are obeying God’s Law you are not “under” Its condemnation.  And how do you obey?  By Faith.

 

Suppose for argument’s sake that we admit the claim that “the Law” is canceled in these verses.  What follows?  We then would come face to face with verse 31, which reads: “Do we then make void the Law through faith?  God forbid:  yea we establish the Law.”  “Come now and let us reason together,” Isaiah 1:18.  Is then not “the Law” of verse 31the same as “the Law” of verse 28; and of the other verses of this Chapter?  If you have any Godly reasoning powers left in you, then you can certainly conclude that it most certainly is!

 

Notice also that “the Law” of verse 28 is established by faith.  It is NOT made VOID by faith.  Notice also, that if you stick to your point of this “Law” as being the Ceremonial “Law,” in addition to the Ten Commandments, therefore you have just established the entire Jewish ritual “Law,” and Ten Commandment Law “by faith.”  I think by now you can see my point.

 

However, what really takes place here is that the Moral Law (the Ten Commandments) is established by faith, while the Ceremonial Law is abolished in the flesh of Christ (Eph. 2:15; Col. 2:14).  See also my Note in Romans 3:20.  This Chapter might best be described as the “faith” Chapter; just as much as Hebrews, Chapter 11, is the, “show me my faith” Chapter; or just, “The Faith Chapter.”

 

3:4:  “when Thou art judged” = Here is my Psalm 51:4 Note:  “that Thou mightiest be justified” = This is made even more clear by Paul when referencing this verse in Romans 3:4, adding, “and mightiest overcome when Thou art judged.”  When we ask God “Why?” we are essentially questioning and “judging” our God’s reasons for whatever; or to be even more childish, in a way of reasoning to get our own way.  But in the end, All of God’s decisions will be “justified.”  See also Ezekiel 36:22 & Romans 3:26.

 

3:19:  “what things soever the Law saith, it saith to them who are under the Law” = What needs to be understood here is that “under the Law” of God, literally means, “under the condemnation of the Law.  This only speaks and applies to those who are in violation of God’s Holy Law.  Otherwise, “the Law” only stands ready to condemn and not justify.

 

3:20:  “by the Law is the knowledge of sin” = The fact that Paul still states here, “by the Law is the knowledge of sin,” is positive proof that the Law is still active and operative, in that the Laws righteousness and obligation is to convict and condemn us, being still effective to this, our day.  The opposite is true and needs to be understood.  There is no “sin” if there is no Law.  And I do not know of anyone, Biblically educated, that will state that there is no sin.  Except the group that needs to see my Bible Study:  “ONCE SAVED ALWAYS SAVED.”

 

Here is a complete list for the definition of “sin:”  Romans 3:20; 4:15; 5:13; 5:20; 7:7; First Corinthians 15:56; First John 3:4 (being the most important).

 

3:21:  “But now the righteousness of God without the Law is manifested” = The phrase, “the righteousness of God” is explained in verse 22, “the righteousness of God which is by faith of Jesus Christ,” i.e., Jesus.  It must be understood that God’s righteousness is now fully “manifested” by the First appearance of our Lord on this earth.  No better representation of God’s righteousness, i.e., God’s Holy Law, could be better “manifested” or represented than in the life of our Lord Jesus, The Christ.  Thus, “without the Law,” or in other words, the Law is seen in Jesus Christ and not in just the stone, and as such is best seen (or “manifested”) in the true character of God (Jesus), which are the precepts of God’s Holy Law (which is His character).

 

Here is how we could better read and understand this phrase:  “But now the righteousness of God’s character, is shown besides [or instead of; not “without;” the Greek being “choris,” and is better to be translated as, “besides,” as the “NKJV” has it, not “without”] the Law, is manifested [through Jesus Christ; He being the manifestation of the righteousness of God’s Law], the witness [or proof] being God’s Holy Law and the prophets [meaning still in effect].”  For was not Christ’s character judged by God’s Standard?  Was He not sent here to live the Holy life that man failed to live? And was not Messiah’s character based upon adherence to God’s Holy Law?  Let alone all of the Jewish Standards given by God (Moral-Civil-Ceremonial)?  For Psalm 119:172 states, “all Thy Commandments are righteousness.

 

3:23:  “all have sinned” = See First Kings 8:46.

 

“come short of the glory of God” = Conclusion?  The “glory of God” is for us to be sinless.

 

3:24:  “justified freely” = The Greek word “dikaioo,” translated “justified,” may mean “make righteous,” or “declare righteous,” or “consider righteous.”  The word is built on the same root word, “dikaiosune,” meaning, “righteousness,” and also the Greek word, “dikaioma,” meaning, “righteous requirement.”  Hence, there is a close connection between “justification” and “righteousness.”  In God’s dealing with us, the correct thought would be for God to “declare” us “righteous,” or “consider” us “righteous” because of the covering blood of Jesus Christ, Whom God sees in us, and not us being seen.  Thus, to be “justified freely” would mean to be “justified without a cause” or “reason to be.”  God will look on those who accept Jesus as if they had never sinned.  Paul is linking Psalm 69:4, to the Jews hating Jesus “without a cause,” that you and I might be “justified without a cause.”  Powerful stuff!!!

 

3:25:  “propitiation” = The Greek word for “ propitiation” is “hilasterion,” and occurs in the New Testament only here and in Hebrews 9:5, where it is translated as “mercy-seat.”  The English term “propitiation,” is a translation of the Greek verb “hilaskomai,” as found in Hebrews 2:17, and the noun “hilasmos,” as found in First John 2:2 and 4:10, and the adjective “hilasterion,” as found in Romans 3:25 and Hebrews 9:5.

 

The meaning of these word pictures derives from the Lid of the Ark (the Mercy-Seat), which is called the “kaphar” in Hebrew (Lev 16:20), and “hilasterion” in Greek (Heb. 9:5).  The sin was “covered,” that is, it was expiated (compensated for) in the Old Testament through the sprinkling of the blood upon the Mercy-Seat; which symbolized forgiveness, or atonement, through the satisfaction of Divine justice.  In the New Testament antitype, sin is covered through the sacrifice of Christ, Who satisfies the Divine justice.

 

Perhaps the most important text in this regard is this text, Romans 3:25, where Paul says that God has set forth Christ as the “hilasterion,” or Mercy-Seat for sinners, designed to propitiate the Divine displeasure, or God’s wrath against sin.  Similarly, John declares that Christ is “the propitiation for our sins,” First John 2:2.  By means of Christ’s “propitiatory” Sacrifice, the guilty person is covered in the eyes of God and the guilt is removed.  The sin is dealt with so effectively that it is no longer the object of God’s condemnation.

 

The “Revised Standard Version” translates the Greek word “hilasterion” in a word group, as “expiation,” because the translators were uncomfortable with the notion that Christ’s death “propitiated,” that is, appeased or pacified, God’s wrath.  But the New Testament use of “hilasterion” has nothing to do with the pagan notion of “placating an angry God,” or “appeasing a vindictive, arbitrary, and capricious God.”

 

The text of Romans 3:25 tells us that God in His merciful Will presented Christ as the “propitiation” to His Holy wrath on human guilt, because He accepted Christ as man’s representative and Divine Substitute to receive His judgment on sin.  God’s wrath is not an irrational, capricious, emotional outburst of anger.  Rather, it is His consistent and uncompromising reaction to the objective reality of moral evil.  God’s antagonism against sin is satisfied by Christ’s “propitiatory sacrifice,” which reconciles to God those who accept by faith His Sacrifice -- for God is Love.

 

“remission” = The Greek word for “remission” is a Greek preposition, which literally means, “passing over,” or “passing by.”

 

“sins that are past” = This must not be overlooked when reading and studying this passage.  Note that this Sacrifice only covers “sins that are past,” not “present,” or “future.”

 

3:27:  “by the law of faith” = Notice, this does not state “the Law of Ten Commandments.”  This is a statement of principle; such as “The law of gravity.”  Thus, “the law of faith” is the principle of “belief in Jesus,” verse 26.  Therefore, when Paul states, “the law of faith,” he is basically saying, “by belief in Jesus.”  There is no “law” for that.

 

3:28:  “justified by faith” = “Several have written to me, inquiring if the message of justification by faith is the Third Angel’s Message, and I have answered, ‘It is the Third Angel’s Message in verity.’ ”  RH, April 1, 1890.

 

In an interesting answer to the question, “What is justification by faith?” my favorite Bible commentator wrote: “It is the work of God in laying the glory of man in the dust, and doing for man that which it is not in his power to do for himself.”  TM:456.3; 20MR117.3.

 

“without the deeds of the Law” = As shown in verse 21, “without,” or better, “besides,” the Greek being, “choris,” is a better translation and meaning of this word here and in verse 21.

 

The merits or demerits of God’s Law does not save.  One is only “justified by faith” in Christ, and not faith in His Holy Law.  The Law merely points us to the Holy Character and nature of Christ (Rom. 3:20), which when accepted will bring us into a relationship with Him and His Law.  For His Law is His character.

 

With this verse Paul is concluding his claim that faith excludes boasting (verse 27), which appears to have been the point of this discussion all along.  If a man were justified by his own actions, i.e., keeping the Law, he could boast about it.  But when he is justified because Jesus is the object of his faith, and the merits of Christ keeping His father’s Law, then the credit clearly belongs to God, Who justified the sinner, and not the sinner justifying the sinner.

 

We obey God’s Law because we love the One Who Spoke, Blessed, Sanctified, and Commanded It.  Any other reason (to boast about it for example) is fruitless.

 

According to Martin Luther: “When the Apostle says that we are justified ‘without the deeds of the law,’ he does not speak of the works of faith and grace; for he who does such works, does not believe that he is justified by doing these works.  (While doing such works of faith), the believer seeks to be justified (by faith).  What the Apostle means by ‘deeds of the law’ are works in which the self-righteous trust as if, by doing them, they were justified and so were righteous on account of their works.  In other words, while doing good, they do not seek after righteousness, but they merely wish to boast that they have already obtained righteousness through their works.”  “Commentary on Romans,” page 80.

 

3:30:  “one” = Here is my Deuteronomy 6:4 Note:  The word “one” in Hebrew, “heis,” means one in unity, not in quantity.

 

The actual Hebrew is “Jehovah Elohyim ‘echad Yehovah,”  which equals, “God God one God.”  The three times of mentioning “God” is very plurality in interest.  The Hebrew “Elohyim” is always understood as meaning the plurality of the Godhead.

 

According to Genesis 2:24, “Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife:  and they shall be one flesh.”  This would be just “one” example of more than “one” personality becoming “one” in purpose.  When a husband and wife work together as a team they cannot be broken or separated.