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LETTER TO A JEHOVAH'S WITNESS

A) INTRODUCTION.

B) NEW WORLD TRANSLATION, TRANSLATION.

C) ONLY ONE GOD.

D) FOR JW’s TO CONSIDER.

E) THE TITLE “MIGHTY GOD.”

F) THE TITLE “ALMIGHTY (GOD).”

G) ATTRIBUTES OF CHRIST.

H) WORKS OF CHRIST.

I) BIBLICAL PASSAGES THAT CLEARLY CONFIRM THE DEITY OF CHRIST.

J) JOHN 1:1.

K) TO YOUR OBJECTIONS.

L) REVELATION, CHAPTER ONE, REVEALS JEHOVAH WITNESS ERRORS.

M) THE IMPORTANCE OF NAMES.

N) MORE BIBLE TEXTS AND REVIEW.

O) 1914.

P) IN CONCLUSION.

 

 

A) INTRODUCTION

 

 

Jehovah’s Witnesses are serious Bible students, so be one yourself or you will be in for a ride.  However, their version of the Bible, the “New World Translation,” has been doctored to meet with their false teachings and their opposition at each door they visit.  Consider such translation errors as Philippians 2:6, which would have you believe that Jesus had a “seizure” in order to believe He was God.  However, First Peter 1:19 tells us that Christ was perfect. By contrast, an exception is taken in the “NWT,” which leaves “Christ” out of the verse, even though over 5,400 original Manuscripts of the New Testament include Jesus’ Title.

 

They also make an outlandish claim in the publication, “The Watchtower,” in their July 1, 1973 edition, page 402, which states:  “Only the organization [theirs of course] functions for Jehovah’s purpose and to his praise.”  Even I, and my organization (whatever “organization” you belong to), mine is comprised of me, myself, and I (and I am not claiming trinitarianism here), would NEVER make such an exclusive claim.

 

Contrary to Jehovah’s Witnesses teaching, “Paradise is being able to think for yourself.”  By contrast, according to the “Watchtower committee,” based in New York state, which is comprised of some of the 144,000, they are the authority and not the Bible; even over their own “NWT;” because Christians are constantly forcing them to CHANGE their “NWT” to meet their false doctrines which Christians expose from the original manuscripts at knowledgeable doors they go to.  An example would be one of their many false Biblical teachings that the 144,000 will reign in Heaven, while “the great crowd,” “NWT” of Revelation 7:9, will reign on earth after Christ Comes a Second time.

 

However, they will need to change again their “NWT,” to reflect this false doctrine; for when you go to Revelation 19:1, it states that the “great crowd in Heaven,” is “in Heaven.”  But Jehovah’s Witnesses are told that the men in New York State are smarter than the God that wrote these Scriptures, and that “Heaven” in this passage means “earth.”  Just change your version AGAIN to reflect your doctrines please (see if they have if you acquire a newer version of the “NWT,” or if one comes to your door).

 

The difference between a “Religion” and a “Cult” is what happens when you attempt to leave.  See my Bible Study:  “CULT, RECOGNITION OF A.”  Do they shun you; restrict you; or lock you up?  Jehovah’s Witnesses acknowledge that they are to “shun” anyone who leaves their organization.

 

JW’s, please consider that God’s Law was broken.  Therefore, only God can die for your sins.  Jehovah God the Father did not die; whereas Jesus as God did die for your sins.  According to John 5:22-23, if you do not “honour the Son, EVEN AS they [yoy] honour the Father,” you will be “judged” by Jesus, Who is “the express image of” the Father, Hebrews 1:5.  The term “express image” does not mean a copy.  It means Jesus is God; part of God; He is God the Father (see Isa. 9:6).

 

 

B) NEW WORLD TRANSLATION, TRANSLATIONS

 

 

The “New World Translation,” which is the translation used by Jehovah’s Witnesses, and is changed whenever their doctrine does not conform to the version of doctrines they have, can still be used against their cherished doctrine (until they change it again) in some instances.  For example, John 5:18 still teaches in their version that Jesus is God.

 

Also, many texts are changed to “Jehovah” when it clearly is speaking of “Lord,” meaning Jesus, God (plural), or God The Holy Spirit.  An example is Zechariah 11:13 (compare with Acts 20:28).  Compare First John 5:7-8 “NWT” with the “KJV.”  This is a clear distortion.  Even the “NWT,” 1960’s edition, still missed another verse that teaches Jesus is God (for only God can die for your sins) in Philippians 3:20.

 

When you have an agenda, instead of using Biblical hermeneutics, you lose your sense of righteousness.  Consider the truth instead of error.

 

 

C) ONLY ONE GOD

 

 

Just a question for you “JW.”  If Jesus is “a god,” that implies that there is more than one God.  In other words, there can be “many gods.”  Where in the Scriptures do they teach more than one God?  Other than Jesus being “a god?” They DON’T!  Therefore, let me reason with you again.

 

The Word of God establishes that there is only, “ONE” Jehovah God.  For examples see:

 

Isaiah 43:10:  “Before Me there was no God formed, and after Me there continued to be none.”  “New World Translation.”

Deuteronomy 4:35:  “the Lord He is God; there is none else beside Him.”

Deuteronomy 4:39:  “the Lord He is God. . .  there is none else.”

Deuteronomy 32:39:  “there is no god with Me.”

First Kings 8:60:  “. . . the Lord is God, and that there is none else.”

Isaiah 45:5:  “I Am the Lord, and there is none else, there is no [other] God beside Me.”

Isaiah 45:18:  “For thus saith the Lord that created the heavens; God Himself that formed the earth and made it; [Note:  See John 1:3 & Col. 1:14-20, Jesus is the Creator, and since there is only ONE God, simple equation, Jesus is Almighty God]. . .  I Am the Lord; and there is none else.”

Malachi 2:10:  “Have we not all one Father?  Hath not one God created us?”

 

Other texts to consider are:  Deuteronomy 6:4; First Samuel 2:2; Mark 12:29; Ephesians 4:5; First Corinthians 8:4; First Timothy 2:5.  Therefore, Jesus cannot be considered as, “a god.”  He is either, “The God,” manifest in the flesh, or no God at all.  Micah 5:2 confirms that Jesus has always existed by the statement “from everlasting.”  To then add the little English word “a” to John 1:1, implying that Jesus is “a god,” is to mistranslate the verse in order to implement a false doctrine (concept).  If you have to change the Word of God in order to support your doctrines, you are a “Cult” -- admit it.

 

PLUS, PLEASE READ THIS PARAGRAPH!  There is no “definite article” -- this “definite article” is the argument used by Jehovah’s Witnesses to prove Jesus was a created being.  Well then, consider that there is no “definite article” for the Father God in John 1:18.  THEREFORE, are you going to make the Father “a god” in verse 18 also, as you are doing with Jesus in John 1:1?  You would have to in order to be a consistent translator.  But alas, you for some reason need to hang on to and are promoting your false doctrine.  Think again.  Unless the God/man died for your sins, which is the transgression of God’s Law and the reason Jesus had to die in the first place, then you are still in your sins and cannot achieve Heaven.

 

 

D) FOR JW’s TO CONSIDER

 

 

ISAIAH 9:6 -- “For unto us a Child is born [this would be none other than Jesus Christ], unto us a Son is given [“given” by the Father God]:  and the government shall be upon His [Jesus’] shoulder: and His Name [Jesus’ Name] shall be called Wonderful, Counsellor, The mighty God, The everlasting Father [SERIOUSLY?], The Prince of Peace.”

 

Since there is only ONE God, as clearly shown above, it doesn’t get any clearer that, “The Everlasting Father,” is Jesus; because He it was that, “is born,” “a child,” and can refer to no other “God” than Jesus in His humanity.  Also, reconsider “The mighty God” in that verse.  You may object that Isaiah 9:6 calls Jesus, “the mighty God,” but not “the Almighty God.”  However, “The Everlasting Father” is plenty clear enough.  By contrast, even the “NWT,” in Isaiah 10:21 & Jeremiah 32:18, calls Jehovah, the “Mighty God.”  Therefore, Jesus is JEHOVAH if you cross reference your own “NWT” Bible.

 

Be consistent.  You cannot have it both ways, one referring to God the Father and another referring to Jesus.  Hebrew and American English structure of the sentence does not allow for such an interpretation.  Nor would the Greek.  Nor would an honest JW.

According to Zechariah 14:3-4, God Himself [JW’s, which God is this?], will place His “feet” upon the “Mount of Olives,” when He returns to this earth.  However, this particular God Scripture tells us is Jesus in Acts 1:11-12.  This means clearly that Jesus is God.

 

E) THE TITLE “MIGHTY GOD”

 

 

“Mighty (God),” as used in the Hebrew:  “Gibbowr,” meaning, “powerful, warrior, tyrant, champion, chief, excellent, giant, mighty man, strong man, and valiant man.”  Examples are:  Nehemiah 9:32; Isaiah 9:6; 10:21; Jeremiah 32:18.  Notice that, if Jehovah is “Mighty God,” as spoken of in any of the verses here, then it stands to reason that Jesus as “Mighty” and “Almighty God,” is God (see Isaiah 9:6 again if you disagree).  However Christian reading this, be aware that the false prophets in New York may have changed their “NWT” at this writing, version of Isaiah 9:6, in order to avoid this argument.

 

 

F) THE TITLE “ALMIGHTY (GOD)”

 

 

“Almighty (God),” as used in the Greek:  “Pantokrator,” meaning, “The All-Ruling,” i.e., “God” (as absolute and universal), “Almighty, Omnipotent.”  Examples are:  Second Corinthians 6:18 & Revelation 1:8.  Notice that Christ is “The Almighty” God, because in verse 11, of Revelation, Chapter One, the “Alpha and Omega, First and Last,” is speaking.  Notice also that in verse 12, of Revelation, Chapter One, the “Alpha and Omega, First and Last” is speaking.  And in verse 17, the “First and Last” is still speaking.  Thus, when we come to verse 18, we learn the speaker’s identification as being that of Jesus, The Christ, because only Christ “DIED” for mankind.  The argument that the speaker changes from the Son of God to the Father is not valid if we come to the Biblical fact that there is only, “ONE” God.

 

In Revelation 4:8, Christ is, “The Almighty God,” because He, “was [died], is, and is Coming.”  And in Revelation 11:17, this is speaking of Christ again, because He, “art, wast [died], and art to Come,” making it quite clear that He is “The Almighty God.”  See also, Revelation 15:3; 16:7; 16:14; 19:15; 21:22.

 

Since Jehovah Witnesses admit that Jehovah is called, “The First and The Last,” therefore, when Christ is also called, “The First and The Last” (Revelation 22:13, and see verse 16 where Jesus is still speaking), doesn’t it follow that there cannot be two Firsts or two Lasts?  Therefore, Jehovah and Christ are One and the Same Being, “The Almighty God.”

 

 

G) ATTRIBUTES OF CHRIST

 

 

Attributes of Christ show that He is ALMIGHTY GOD.  Jesus knows all things (Matthew 9:4; John 1:48; 2:25; 6:64; 13:1; 16:30; 18:4; 19:28; 21:17); is eternal (Micah 5:2); is all-powerful (Matthew 28:18; Hebrews 1:3); is sinless (John 8:46); and is unchanging (Hebrews 13:8).  Since only God possesses these attributes, this indicates that Christ possesses Deity.  See Isaiah 9:6 explanation again under section “D,” if you are still fighting this information.

 

 

H) WORKS OF CHRIST

 

 

Certain Works Of Christ show that Christ is “Almighty God.”  He has the power to forgive sins (Mark 2:5-7; Ephesians 1:7); control nature (trough the Holy Spirit; Matthew 8:26); give eternal life (John 10:28; 17:2); and judge the world of sin against God, which only God can do (John 5:22 & 27).  Again, since only God can do these things,Christ is Almighty God.

 

One verse in the Bible could suffice to prove and dispel any objections to Christ being “God,” if other doctrinal concepts would step aside.  Here it is as a fact and seen if we read Isaiah 43:3 properly, understanding that only One Personage can match as being our “Saviour.”  Here is Isaiah 43:3:  “For I Am the Lord thy God, the Holy One of Israel, thy Saviour.”  Only the Son of God, Jesus Christ The Messiah, can say, “thy Saviour.”

 

Also, if we go to Titus, Chapter 2, we can see that Christ is both God and Saviour, One and the same:

 

10.  Not purloining, but shewing all good fidelity; that they may adorn the doctrine of God our Saviour in all things.

11.  For the grace of God that bringeth salvation hath appeared [Who “appeared?”] to all men,

12.  Teaching us that, denying ungodliness and worldly lusts, we should live soberly, righteously, and Godly, in this present world;

13.  Looking for that blessed hope, and the glorious appearing of the great God and our Saviour Jesus Christ [the “great God and” “Saviour” is “Jesus Christ”].

 

See also Philippians 3:20; First Timothy 1:1; Second Timothy 1:10.

 

 

I) BIBLICAL PASSAGES THAT CLEARLY CONFIRM THE DEITY OF CHRIST

 

 

COLOSSIANS 2:9 clearly confirms the Deity of Christ, when it states that in Him “all the fullness of the Divine quality dwells bodily” (“NWT”).  That’s your Bible’s translation.  Your argument about this verse meaning “God’s Nature” instead of “Godhead” is inconsistent.  There is only ONE GOD.  (Note:  They may have changed this verse also by now).

 

You and I possess the same nature (human).  If Christ possesses any nature of Divinity, He is Jehovah God!  Stephen called Jesus “Lord” (Acts 7:59 & 60), and we are to confess Jesus as Lord (Romans 10:9; First Corinthians 12:3).  “Lord” in these verses is “Kurios,” which is the Greek word for “Jehovah.”  Supposedly, the Greek version of the Old Testament, is what JW’s “NWT” is translated from!  So then, the “NWT” confirms that Christ the Lord (Kurios) is Jehovah God.

 

John states, in John 12:31-42, that Isaiah saw Jesus’ glory and spoke of Him (Isaiah 6:10).  In Exodus 34:14 and Revelation 19:10, it is clear that we are to worship NO ONE but Jehovah.  And in Hebrews 1:6, the angels worship Christ.  Christ Himself said that worship is due to God alone (Matthew 4:10), and yet He accepted worship (Matthew 14:33).  Bowing in any form to any god (and there is only ONE GOD which angels would bow to) is to worship that god.

 

 

J) JOHN 1:1

 

 

First, according to Romans 8:1:  “There is therefore now no condemnation to them which are in Christ Jesus, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit.”  Now if “Christ Jesus” be not God Himself -- for ONLY God can forgive you of your sins -- and instead just be “a god,” then you have “condemnation” and NO CHANCE of eternal life.  For here is John 5:22-23:  “[22] For the Father judgeth no man, but hath committed all judgment unto the Son: [23] That all men should honour the Son, even as they honour the Father.  He that honoureth not the Son honoureth not the Father which hath sent Him.”  This reads the same (if not changed yet) in the “NWT.”  Here is one they forgot to change (changes coming to your area soon).

 

Now let us look at JOHN 1:1.  Jehovah Witnesses say, that Christ is “a god” (“NWT”).  Jehovah Witnesses translators say the small “g” is required because the Greek word for God, “Theos,” is not preceded by a definite article, “the” (“ho”).  Greek scholarship affirms that this does not mean the word should be translated “god” with a small “g.”  However, the definite article is omitted because of a somewhat technical rule of Greek grammar.

 

A definite predicate nominative, which precedes a verb, does not have the definite article.  The order of the Greek words in the last clause of John 1:1 is, “God was the Word” (“Theos en ho logos”).  The subject of the sentence is, “the Word,” the verb is, “was,” and the predicate nominative is, “God.”  Usually, the predicate nominative follows the verb; but in this case, it precedes it.  And since it precedes the verb, no article is necessary.  When a Greek writer wanted to stress the quality of the person or thing, which was in the predicate nominative case, he would put it before the verb, rather than after it.  This is what John did to stress the fact that the Word (Christ), possesses the qualities of the Godhead (IS GOD).  This fundamental principle of Greek grammar thus supports the Deity of Christ, and gives no support whatsoever to the “NWT” translation, “The Word was a god.”

 

Let the Word of God express Itself, instead of making up a translation to support any cherished doctrine.  This is what the Catholics did before the reformation started taking their translations apart, giving us the true translation; such that the individual could come to their own conclusions.

 

By Contrast, even the “NWT” does not always follow its “no article” -- small “g” rule.  For example, in John 1:6 & 12 & 13, the word “God,” does not have the definite article in the Greek, but it does have a capital “G” in the “NWT.”  It is correct to use the capital in these verses, but it is inconstant with the “NWT” of John 1:1.  In fact, if the “NWT” stuck to its own rules (as it should) for non-JW’s, and was not attempting to promote its own false doctrine, one could see this clearly when they got to John 1:18, in that (if following its own rules), in this verse God the Father would be translated (as in verse one) as “a god.”

 

Even more startling, is that in Jehovah’s Witnesses own literature, the “Kingdom Interlinear Translation,” in the Appendix, page 1139, is a list of supposed “other translations that support [the small ‘g’ rendering] John 1:1, that Jesus is a god.”  However, in the entire list is only individual writers and their opinions.  NOWHERE are any of the over 5,400 original Manuscripts listed (and none of them do) in reference to support their “NWT’s” purposeful change to “a god.”

 

In John 13:3, the word “God” occurs twice, each time with a capital “G” in the “NWT.”  However, in the Greek, the first occurrence of the word does not have the definite article and the second does.  Since both obviously refer to the same person -- God the Father -- it would again be wrong to assume that the alleged “no article” small “g” rule has any validity in Greek grammar; as even their “NWT” affirms in this case and what I have already pointed out.  Since the “NWT” does not stick to its own rules, it becomes a false translation.

 

Another observation is, that without the “definite article,” “Theos” signifies Divine essence; while with the article, “Theos” suggests Divine personality.  Also, “Theos” is a definite noun, and therefore cannot have the “indefinite article,” “a.”

 

There are verses clearly referring to Christ in which the word “God” does have the definite article “the,” thus showing that Jesus is “the God,” that is, “JEHOVAH.”  Matthew 1:23, for example, which states that Jesus is Emmanuel, and in the Greek, it is rendered as, “With us is the God.”  The “NWT,” and the “1985 Kingdom Interlinear,” in John 20:28, calls Jesus “God,” and, “The God” (“Ho Theos”), respectively.  Jesus is therefore, “JEHOVAH GOD.”

 

Let’s take a look at John 1:3 (same context).  Jehovah’s Witnesses teach that Father God created Jesus, then Jesus created everything else.  “All things were made by Him [Jesus]; and without Him was not any thing made that was made.”  Fine.  But let’s now discover, even in their “NWT,” Isaiah 44:24:  “Thus saith the LORD [Father God Jehovah], thy Redeemer [here is where they are messed up, for Jehovah God is not “thy Redeemer”], and He that formed thee from the womb, I am the LORD [Father Jehovah God] that maketh all things; that stretcheth forth the heavens alone; that spreadeth abroad the earth by Myself [Father Jehovah God].”  The “NWT” translates John 1:3 as, “apart from Him [Jesus?] not even one thing came into existence.”  Which passage is correct my Jehovah Witness friend?

 

Please consider Isaiah 9:6 again and my explanation under section “D.”  Or, go back to Isaiah, Chapter 44, but this time go to verse 6, which states, “beside me there is no God;” or “NWT,” “there is no god but Me.”  And verse 8:  “Is there a God beside me? yea, there is no God; I know not any.”  No honest reconciliation can be made for the JW’s false teachings about anything to do with the God Jesus.  When the “NWT” has to be revamped -- I mean republished to represent the “Watchtower” teachings, instead of true Biblical teachings -- shouldn’t that be a clue that something is wrong in Paradise -- I mean the JW’s religion -- I mean the CULT of JW’s!  Isaiah 43:10 should seal the deal:  “before Me there was no God [CAPITAL “G”] formed, neither shall there be after Me.”  Here is the “NWT:”  “before Me [JEHOVAH FATHER GOD] no God was formed and after Me there has been none.”  See Verse 11 also.  That should also cancel any “a god” being formed either.

 

 

K) TO YOUR OBJECTIONS

 

 

Let’s look at some of your texts that you might bring up as OBJECTIONS:

 

In GENESIS 1:2 the “NWT” translates “the Spirit of God,” as, “the Active Force.”  One might ask, whose “Active Force,” was it?  JW’s have a ready answer.  Since in their teachings there is only “One God,” then this “Active Force,” in the “NWT’s” rendition is God the Father, i.e., “Jehovah.”  However, what they fail to recognize, and dutifully overlook, is the reference to God in plural pronouns, right here in the very beginning of God’s Word, such as “us; our; we,” etcetera, in Genesis 1:26; 3:22; 11:7; then see Isaiah 6:8; Jerimiah 51:9; Daniel 10:13; John 17:11 & 21 & 22(see also John 14:16; 16:7).  It is also contained in Hebrew plural verbs (see Genesis 20:13 & 35:7).  The plural form of the Godhead is used in these passages, the Hebrew being the Divine name “Elohim,” and not “Jehovah.”  Thus, it is doctrine and not Biblical scrutiny that leads to false concepts.

 

As testified to above, by adding the little English word “a” to John 1:1, thus implying that Jesus is “a god,” is to mistranslate in order to implement a false doctrine (concept).  If you have to change the Word of God in order to support your doctrines, you are a Cult -- admit it.  No reputable Greek scholar would ever insert a (“a”) word there that is not in the Greek.

 

JOHN 1:18 (“only begotten Son”) is used by JW’s to show that Jesus was/is a created being.  The Greek word here is “monogenes,” which literally means, “Unique; One of a kind; One and only.”  This Greek word has nothing to do with, nor association with any conjecture or form of being created.  It is used in Luke 7:12 where it is referring to “the only son of his mother,” and Luke 8:42, where it is referring to “the only daughter” of Jairus, and Luke 9:38, where it is referring to “the only” child.  Surely Jesus is NOT the ONLY SON ever born.  It is because of JW’s belief system that they cannot cross reference these Greek words in order to understand their true meaning.  One should never be afraid to have their belief system challenged.  It will only make it stronger or tell you that you need more Bible Study, or somebody lied to you, or are confused themselves.  The true meaning is, one in “preeminence.”

 

JOHN 10:30:  “I and the Father are one,” is used by JW’s to mean that Christ was one with God in purpose, but not in NATURE and essence.  However, if that is all Jesus was saying, why did the Jews want to stone Him for claiming to be God (verse 33)?  Also, as discussed earlier, only God can claim certain qualities of nature that Jesus Christ MEETS. Other texts to consider for Jesus claiming to be God are:  John 10:38; 13:13; 14:11; 17:11 & 21; First John 5:7.   John 5:18 reveals the fact that when Jesus called God His Father, it meant to the Jews that He was making Himself, “equal with God,” BECAUSE HE IS JEHOVAH GOD!!!  Whenever the Sadducees and Pharisees are upset, pay great attention to learn a Biblical truth!

 

Regarding PHILIPPIANS 2:6, the “NWT” suggests that Christ was NOT EQUAL with God, and also that He did not even want to be.  Here is the “NWT:”  “Although he was existing in God’s form, gave no consideration to a seizure, namely, that he should be equal to God.”  It is important to remember that Philippians 2:5-8 (context is more important than a sentence; and a sentence is more important than a singular word), is discussing the incarnation of Christ.  It was His act of leaving Heaven’s glory, and Coming to this earth, that is the context.

 

By stating that He did not cling to His prerogatives and rights as God, Philippians 2:8 is saying that He willingly Came to the earth.  In addition, it is important not to overlook the first part of the verse:  “He existed in the form of God.”  The word “form,” means Jesus has/had the essential attributes.  Therefore, since Christ was in the form of God, that is, possessing the attributes of Deity (and there can only be ONE GOD), it is wrong to suggest that He did not want to be equal with God.  He already WAS -- AND IS -- already God!  The view that His being equal to God was something that He had to grasp for, is excluded by the FACT that He already existed in the form of God, pre-First Coming.

 

JEHOVAH WITNESSES use COLOSSIANS 1:15-17 to support their teaching that Christ was created by Jehovah (i.e., “Let God Be True,” p. 35).  This is based on the words, “the firstborn of all creation,” verse 15.  However, if this verse were teaching that Jesus is the first created being made by Jehovah, the word “first-created” would have been used, not “firstborn.”  Surely you must admit that Jesus is NOT the first ever baby to be born on earth.

 

These are two very different words in the Greek, with two different meanings.  “First-created” is “protoktistos,” and “firstborn,” is “prototokas.”  Colossians 1:15 does not use the word “protoktistos,” i.e., “first-created.”  Instead, it uses, “prototokas.”  This latter word means, “an heir, the first in rank.”  The teaching of Colossians 1:15, then, is that Christ is “FIRST IN RANK,” above all other first-borns and all creation (since He made all things), and He is Heir of all things.

 

The “NWT” adds the word “other,” (of course they do) FOUR TIMES in Colossians 1:15-17, so that the passage states that Christ created “all other things.”  To clarify, for those who are not Jehovah Witnesses, their twist upon what would normally be clear, is that Jesus created everything except Himself.  However, there is no basis for adding the word “other,” as it does not appear in ANY of the known Greek Manuscripts.  Not even the forged, or manufactured Greek Manuscripts (there were no JW’s at the time; sorry).  The “NWT” translators admit this by putting the word “other” in brackets; but the conjecture is prevalent and understood as such by the non-Biblical student, and the classroom teachings of Jehovah Witnesses.  I will give the “NWT” kudos here however; in that they are at least in this instance case, consistent.  Although consistently adding a word not in any manuscript.  But don’t miss this point.  For “a god” being able to “create” anything, WOULD MAKE HIM GOD!

 

REVELATION 3:14:  “. . . the beginning of the creation of God,” should be translated, “the source (or origin) of God’s creation.”  The Greek word for “source,” or “origin,” is “arche,” as used here.  This is consistent with the statements in Colossians 1:16 and John 1:3, in that all things were made by, or had their origin or source from, Jesus Christ.  Because, since Christ created at all, and this is only a quality of Jehovah God, then Jesus is, JEHOVAH GOD!

 

 

L) REVELATION, CHAPTER ONE, REVEALS JEHOVAH WITNESS ERRORS

 

 

Let’s look at REVELATION, CHAPTER ONE and solve this Biblical truth forever.  Verses eight and eleven say, (verse 8) “I Am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the ending, saith the Lord. . . the Almighty.”  (Verse 11) “I Am Alpha and Omega, the first and the last.”

 

Every Jehovah’s Witness I have asked, “Who is this talking about?” has declared that this is speaking of “The Lord God Almighty,” “Jehovah,” “The Everlasting Father.”  In verse 17, I again ask, “Who is, I Am the first and the last?”  Once again, the same JW answers, “The Everlasting Father,” “Jehovah,” or “The Lord God Almighty.”  Then we read verse 18, “I Am He that liveth, and was dead; and, behold, I Am alive for evermore, Amen.”  This is the same speaker for all of Chapter 1.  English and Greek grammar rules allow for no change of characters in this section of verses.  So I ask you reader, “When was God the Father ever dead?”  Only Jesus has died for our sins.  Only God can redeem us from His broken Law.  No other being’s LAW has been broken.  Only, “The Lord God Almighty,” (= Jesus) can DIEfor our sins!

 

 

M) THE IMPORTANCE OF NAMES

 

As to the importance of names, “there is none other Name [Jesus] under Heaven given among men, whereby we must be saved.”  Acts 4:12.  And we should know Who that is referring to.  Also, Philippians 2:9-10, “(9) Wherefore God also hath highly exalted Him [Jesus], and given Him [Jesus] a Name which is above every name: (10) That at the Name of Jesus every knee should bow.”  The “NWT” needs to change these verses to “Jehovah” and not “Jesus.”  We are to “bow” before no-one except God (see Revelation 19:10; 22:9 as examples).  ALSO, adding the supplied word, not in the Greek, “other,” meaning “every [other] name,” exposes the “New World Translators” as being fraudulent.  Even their own interlinear Greek transcript admits that the supplied word “other” is not there in the Greek.  Galatians 4:6 says, “And because ye are sons, God hath sent forth the Spirit of His Son into your hearts crying, Abba Father.”  Reconcile this with, “Christ in you, the hope of glory,” Colossians 1:27.  No Christ, no [Heaven] “glory.”  See also Romans 8:15.

 

The “NWT” of John 5:23 teaches us to, “honor the Son just as they honor the Father.”  JEHOVAH WITNESSES start out their prayers with, “Jehovah God.”  Yet Jesus’ prayers start with, and He teaches us to pray starting with, “Father” (see Matthew 11:25; 26:39 & 42; Mark 14:36; Luke 10:21; 22:42; 23:34 & 46; John 11:41; 12:27; 17:1).  Also, Jesus taught us how to begin our prayers with, “Our Father” (see Matthew 6:9; Luke 11:2).

N) MORE BIBLE TEXTS AND REVIEW

 

 

NOW LET US LOOK AT SOME MORE BIBLE TEXTS (and review):

 

Going over GENESIS 1:2 again -- The “NWT” states, “active force.”  That the Holy Spirit is a Divine Personage, see Acts 13:2, where He Speaks, John 15:26, where He bears witness, John 16:23, where He hears and speaks, Isaiah 63:10, where He feels hurt, Acts 5:3-4, where He was lied to and is God, and Romans 8:26-27, where He makes intercession for us.

 

Also, looking at “without form and void,” the Greek being, “tohu wabohu,” this signifies a state of “wastages” and “emptiness,” but without implying that the earth was once perfect and then was made waste or desolate.  The literal interpretation of “tohu wabohu” is, “absolute nothingness; non-existence.”  This is consistent with our ,concept of God; for only He could and can create something from nothing.

 

When the words “tohu wabohu” appear together in other passages, such as in Isaiah 34:11 and Jeremiah 4:23, they seem to be borrowed from this text.  But “tohu” alone is frequently employed as synonymous with non-existence, or nothingness (Isaiah 40:17 & 23; 49:4, being examples).  Job 26:7 demonstrates the correct meaning of this word.  The second half of that passage states that God, “hangeth the earth upon nothing,” and the first half has the parallel, “He stretcheth out the north over thou [the emptiness].”  This text in the Book of Job, shows clearly the meaning of “tohu” in Genesis 1:2, in which this and the synonymous word “bohu,” indicate that the earth was made from nothingness. With these two words together, there can be no mistaking of this Biblical truth.

 

EXODUS 3:14 & JOHN 8:58 -- Cancellation of “I Am.”  Here is the “NWT:”  “I shall prove to be has sent me to you,” Exodus 3:14.  And John’s rendering, “Most truly I say to you, before Abraham came into existence, I have been.”  Note that for this statement even Jesus’ enemies recognized that He was claiming to be God, for verse 59 tells us, “they took up stones to throw at Him.”

 

JEHOVAH WITNESSES own study Bibles prove that Jesus was claiming to be the “I AM.”  Their 1984 large print “NWT” of the Holy Scriptures with References has a footnote on Exodus 3:14, admitting that the Hebrew would be rendered into Greek as, “EGO EIMI” -- “I AM.”  And in their “1985 Kingdom Interlinear Translation of the Greek Scriptures,” it is revealed that Jesus’ Words in John 8:58 are the same:  “EGO EIMI” (footnote), “I AM” (Interlinear text).

 

“I AM means an eternal presence; the past, present, and future are all alike to God.  He sees the most remote events of past history, and the far distant future,” 1BC:1099.  “From the beginning, God and Christ knew of the apostasy of Satan, and of the fall of man through the deceptive power of the apostate.  God did not ordain that sin should exist, but He foresaw its existence, and made provision to meet the terrible emergency [through Christ].”  Desire of Ages, page 22.  See also Psalm 147:5 and Isaiah 46:10.

 

EXODUS 3:15 -- From the “NWT,” “This is what you are to say to the sons of Israel, Jehovah the God of your forefathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac and the God of Jacob, has sent me to you.  This is my name to time indefinite, and this is the memorial of me to generation after generation.”  Although their very own publications admit that “Jehovah” is an Anglicized mis-rendering, and not the correct pronunciation of the original Hebrew tetragrammaton, “YHWH,” they insist upon using that pronunciation only, rather than the more correct, “Yahweh.”  But Jesus showed that more than just a name is involved, when He said, “(22) Many will say to Me in that day, Lord, Lord, have we not prophesied in Thy Name? and in Thy Name have cast out devils? and in Thy Name done many wonderful works? (23) And then will I profess unto them, I never knew you:  depart from Me.”  Matthew 7:22-23.

 

PSALM 110:1 -- It does not say, “the Lord” was talking to “the Lord.”  The original Hebrew tetragrammaton, “YHWH,” should be rendered, “the LORD” (all capital letters) Who is talking to the Psalmist’s “Lord” (both capital and small letters), the Messiah.  That Jesus cannot be God because, “The Lord” spoke to Him, is ridiculous reasoning. The point is, God spoke to God.  Jesus uses this verse against the Pharisees (see Mat. 22:42-46), where they were unable to answer Jesus because they knew that God was talking to God.  And so should JW’s admit the same and leave their false religion.

 

PSALM 115:16 -- We are called to Heaven, not earth.  See Hebrews 3:1:  “Wherefore, holy brethren, partakers of the Heavenly calling.”  And Hebrews 11:13, “. . . strangers and pilgrims on the earth,” to verse 16, “But now they desire a better country, that is, an Heavenly.”  See also Revelation 7:9 (“NWT”) where the “great crowd,” is “before the throne,” and Revelation 7:15 (“NWT”) “before the throne of God. . . in His temple,” and the real truth about the location of the “great crowd in Heaven,” Revelation 19:1 (“NWT”), all Heavenly locations, not earthly.

 

PROVERBS 8:24-25 -- See also Proverbs 43:10, “before Me there was no God formed, neither shall there be after Me.”  And Isaiah 44:8, “Is there a God beside Me? yea, there is no God:  I know not any.”

 

ISAIAH 9:6 -- The “NWT” calls Jesus, the “Mighty God.”  The “NWT” in Isaiah 10:20-21 calls Jehovah, the “Mighty God.”  And finally, the “NWT” in Jeremiah 32:18 calls Jehovah, the “Mighty God.”  Therefore, Who is Jesus?  The “NWT” and the “1985 Kingdom Interlinear” in John 20:28, calls Jesus “God,” and, “The God” (“Ho Theos”), respectively.  Therefore, Jesus is the “Mighty God.”  And, please explain to me why the Bible, in Isaiah 9:6, calls Jesus, “The Everlasting Father.”  Keep making those changes so your doctrine does not fail you.

 

ISAIAH 43:10 -- Acts 1:8 says, “ye shall be witnesses,” and the Bible records in Acts 11:26, that these witnesses are, “called Christians,” not JW’s.

 

MICAH 5:2 -- The “NWT” would have you believe that Jesus is “from ancient times, from the days of long ago.”  Whereas over 2,500 Manuscripts have the Messiah existing “from everlasting.”  JW’s can’t have this truth disrupt their sacred doctrine of Christ being a created being.

 

MATTHEW 6:9 -- See Exodus 3:15 explanation above.

 

MATTHEW 22:44 -- Notice that, “the Father is called Lord, Who said unto Christ, Who is also Lord, and equal with the Father,” 3SP:271.  See also Hebrews 1:13, for Christ as being co-equal with the Father.  See also Psalm 110:1 above, and a correct rendering of Acts 2:34, which is, “For David is not ascended into the Heavens:  but he saith himself, The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit Thou on My right hand.”

 

MATTHEW 24:45-47 -- I see these verses as being a “slave” for Christ, not for a human run organization.

 

JOHN 4:23 -- See Hebrews 1:6 explanation below.

 

JOHN 6:57 -- Again, most Christian denominations cannot distinguish between when the Bible is speaking of the Divinity of Christ, or the Humanity of Christ.  No one lives without the “breath” of God.  Including here, speaking of the Humanity of Christ.

 

JOHN 8:58 -- See the Exodus 3:14 explanation above.  Cancellation of “I Am.” -- (“NWT”) “I shall prove to be as sent me to you,” Exodus 3:14, and John’s rendering (John 8:58), “Most truly I say to you, before Abraham came into existence, I have been.”  Note that for this statement even Jesus’ enemies recognized that He was claiming to be God, for verse 59 tells us, “they took up stones to throw at Him.”  JW’s own study Bibles prove that Jesus was claiming to be the “I AM.”  The problem is, they stick to “claiming to be.”  Their “1984 Large Print NWT of the Holy Scriptures with References” has a footnote on Exodus 3:14, admitting that the Hebrew would be rendered into Greek as, “GO EIMI” -- “I AM.”  And, in the JW’s publication “1985 Kingdom Interlinear Translation of the Greek Scriptures,” it is revealed that Jesus’ Words in John 8:58 are the same:  “EGO EIMI” (footnote), “I AM” (Interlinear text).  But they lie to their students in Sunday School class.

 

JOHN 10:17-18 -- “Only He Who is one with God could say, I have power to lay down My life, and I have power to take It again.  In His Divinity, Christ possessed the power to break the bonds of death.”  DA:785.

 

JOHN 11:25 -- “These words could be spoken only by the Deity.”  DA:785.

 

JOHN 14:28 -- Jesus was speaking, at that time, of what He had done, as stated in Philippians 2:6-7.  Jesus had even become, “lower than the angels,” Hebrews 2:9, in order to act as the Savior of mankind (God wrapped in humanity).  Remember, only “GOD” can die for your sins.

 

JOHN 17:3 -- If Jesus’ references to the Father as, “the only true God,” were meant to exclude the Son from Deity, then the same principle of interpretation would have to apply to Jude 4, where Jesus Christ is called, “our only Owner and Lord,” “NWT.”  Be consistent “NWT” translators; or change your version again by this writing.  According to JW’sinterpretation of John 17:3, consistency DEMANDS that this would have to exclude the Father from Lordship and Ownership.  See also James 5:11.

 

JOHN 20:28 -- In the JW writings, “1985 Kingdom Interlinear,” the word-for-word English under the Greek text shows that Thomas literally called Jesus, “The Lord of me and the God of me.”  Keep changing those writings and blot this comment out.

 

ACTS 2:4 -- If the pouring out of the Holy Spirit were evidence against personality, then the apostle Paul would not be a person either, because Paul wrote concerning himself (“NWT”), “I am being poured out,” Philippians 2:17, and (“NWT”) “I am already being poured out,” Second Timothy 4:6.  And of Christ in Psalm 22:14 (“NWT”), “like water I have been poured out.”

 

That the Holy Spirit is a personage, see Acts 13:2, where He speaks, John 15:26, where He bears witness, John 16:13, where He hears and speaks, Isaiah 63:10, where He feels hurt, Acts 5:3 & 4, where He was lied to and is God, and Romans 8:26, where He makes intercession for us.  Note that the “NWT” in Second Corinthians 3:17 says, “Jehovah is the Spirit.”

 

“[265] The Holy Ghost assuming the form of tongues of fire divided at the tips, and resting upon those assembled, was an emblem of the gift which was bestowed upon them of speaking with fluency several different languages, with which they had formerly been unacquainted. . .  The Jews had been scattered to almost every nation, and spoke various languages. . . [266] That God should supply the deficiency of the Apostles in a miraculous manner was to the people the most perfect confirmation of the testimony of these witnesses for Christ.”  3SP:265-266.

 

ACTS 8:37 -- Quoting the verse, “And Philip said, If thou believest with all thine heart, thou mayest. And he answered and said, I believe that Jesus Christ is the Son of God.”  This verse is left out of the “NWT.”  I’ll let you figure out why; since it is in over 5,400 original Manuscripts.

 

ROMANS 8:34 -- This verse shows Christ as pleading for us as only a Personage can do.  Verse 26 shows us the Personage of the Holy Spirit Who pleads for us.  That makes Christ Divine.

 

FIRST CORINTHIANS 8:6 -- If there is only “one God, the Father,” then you will have to say that there is only, “one Lord Jesus Christ.”  Therefore, the Father is not the “Lord” by your reasoning.  Think again.

 

FIRST CORINTHIANS 11:3 -- This verse simply shows the principle of headship.  It certainly does not teach the non-Deity of Christ.

 

SECOND CORINTHIANS 5:20 -- The “NWT” teaches that, “we are ambassadors substituting for Christ;” while any correct translation teaches, “we are ambassadors for Christ.”  Cleverly adding one word certainly can change any sentence to mean something entirely different.  Because by adding this word, i.e., “substituting,” make it mean we are to be (like) Christ; Whom JW’s don’t even believe is God; so are we to be “a god” then?  They have done themselves a disservice here.  However, what JW’s translational attempt here is to make it sound as if you are an “ambassador” for Jehovah, not Christ.  Poor attempt!!! For the plain English is still the same; that you are an “ambassador [substituting] for Christ” and not Jehovah.

 

PHILIPPIANS 1:1 -- The constant use of the false (“NWT”) translation of “slaves” (other places not listed) instead of “servants” is appalling.  Study the difference between the two words carefully.  A “servant” chooses that life; a “slave” does not.

 

COLOSSIANS 1:15-17:  “firstborn” = The Greek word for “firstborn” is “prototokos.”  In Hebrews 1:6, “prototokos” clearly refers to the incarnation of Christ.  In Matthew 1:25 and Luke 2:7, “prototokos” is also used of Christ as being the “first-born” of Mary.  In Hebrews 11:28, the word is used to refer to the “first-born” of Egypt.  And in Hebrews 12:23, the word describes the members of the “church of the first-born.”  When the word applies to Christ, we find it here and also in Romans 8:29; Colossians 1:18; Hebrews 1:6.

 

The true meaning of “prototokos” is in reference to “priority of position,” as opposed to “priority of origin.”  If you were to look at its five uses in Scripture (noted above) you can clearly see how “position” is its clearly distinguishable application.  The literal translation of the Greek would be, “preeminent.”

 

Thus, how can you be the “firstborn” of creation, and yet be the Creator of it (Colossians 1:16)?  Impossible!  Therefore, it should be understood here, that Christ is really pictured as the Creator, and precedes creation itself.  See the next verse, Colossians 1:16, then see John, Chapter One (in particular verse 3); Ephesians 3:9; Hebrews 1:2 & 10.

 

Plus, verse 17 is too hard to restructure:  “He is before all things, and by Him all things consist.”  That would exclude Himself as far as being created is concerned.  Paul’s main point in Colossians, Chapter One, verse 17 (and 15 and 16), is that Christ is God.  Else why should the Colossians care what Paul is talking about?

 

A clear mistake by all denominations and anyone attempting to understand the Bible correctly, is to misunderstand when the Bible is referring to Christ’s Divinity, or to His Humanity.  Since the Bible is clear that Christ is God (even Jehovah’s Witnesses admit that Christ is “a god”), then He cannot be the Creator of “all things” and yet be a created being Himself.

 

The Hebrew equivalent langue structure is found in Psalm 89:27, where it states:  “Also I will make him (king David; stays in context of verse 20) My firstborn, higher that the kings of the earth.”  Surely you can clearly see that David was not the “first” king ever “born.”  Nor was he the “first” king that God created.  Thus, the context and meaning is clear, i.e., “first in priority.”

 

Another thing to consider is that Christ was not the “firstborn” in Heaven, for there is NO procreation in Heaven (see Matthew 22:30; Mark 12:25; Luke 20:35).  Therefore, since Christ created all things, He could not possibly be a created being.  You cannot be both the Creator and the “first-borne” of creation.  For Christ to be a created being in Heaven, He could not have been created by a “firstborn” child (being) in Heaven.

 

Therefore, “First In Rank” is the correct translation based upon the context, i.e., contextual context of the sentence and paragraph structure in the Greek.  It is clear that “first-borne (Greek -- “prototokos”),” is a figurative expression describing Christ as “first in rank and authority.”  Based on John 1:1-3 and other Bible texts, Christ is God.  Of course, God cannot be a created being, or else He would not be God.

 

The Arians were the first ones to apply this verse in Colossians to show that Christ was a created being.  “Jehovah’s Witnesses” have been the best to continue on with that interpretation.  Although such an interpretation may be possible as far as the grammar of this passage is concerned, it is elsewhere contradicted in Scripture.  It is best to understand this passage as being a figurative expression, describing Jesus as the “first in rank,” or “first-born” of the human family; as in “royalty,” or “first in rank,” which is authoritative and absolute.

 

An example would be the president’s wife being called the “first lady.”  Certainly, we would not consider her to be the “first lady” that was ever born or that ever lived in the White house.  If you are going to quote Colossians 1:15, to prove Christ’s non-Divinity, or to treat Him as a created being, you have to stay in context by going to Colossians 2:9, where the very same author stresses the fullness of the Deity Living in Christ.  The author wouldn’t contradict himself, else he would have no validity to continue teaching.  Thus, Paul is establishing here in this passage that he means, “first in rank.”

 

COLOSSIANS 2:9 -- The “Reference Edition,” footnote, and the “Interlinear Version of the New World Translation,” both say that the Greek word translated as “Divine quality,” in the “NWT,” literally means “godship.”  Had they capitalized “godship,” they would have been correct.  But here again, doctrine overrides Biblical truth.

 

HEBREWS 1:6 -- On “first-born,” see Colossians 1:15.  On “Worship,” the Greek root word here is “proskuneo,” which can properly be translated either as, “worship,” or “obeisance,” depending on the context.  In Revelation 22:8-9in the “Kingdom Interlinear Translation,” where the same Greek root is found, John states:  “I fell down to worship,” but the angel said:  “Do not do that. . . worship. . .”  The worship that the angel refused, but told John to give to God, is the same “prokuneo” that the Father Commanded [Notice, God the Father “Commanded” this “worship”] to be given to Jesus in Hebrews 1:6.

 

Should Jesus receive the same worship as the Father?  See John 5:23 (“NWT”), “in order that all may honor the Sonjust as they honor the Father.  He that does not honor the Son does not honor the Father Who sent Him.”  Change your version again or “worship” Christ as “God,” not “a god.”

 

HEBREWS 2:16 -- The literal original Greek states:  “For of course he takes hold, not of angels, but of seed of Abraham he takes hold.”  Nowhere is the word “nature” implied.  Nature equals “Character,” and Jehovah Witnessestranslators knew this when they supplied the word “nature,” contrary to over 2,500 Manuscripts which do not have this translation.  Again, if you have to add words to the Holy Scriptures, or take away words in order to promote your false, pre-conceived doctrines, get a new doctrine or leave this false religion.

 

REVELATION 3:14 -- According to Jehovah’s Witnesses, in Revelation 21:6 and 22:13 the Father is speaking.  Yet in both verses He calls Himself “the beginning.”  However, you do not call the Father a “created being.”

 

Actually, in each of these cases, the Greek word is “arche,” having such varied meanings as:  “beginning, power, magistrate, or ruler.”  The “Watchtower Bible (NWT)” translates the plural of the same word as “government officials,” in Luke 12:11.  Since “government officials” are NOT the first created beings in Luke 12:11, neither should Christ be the first created being in this verse either.  Only doctrinal authority would make such an assumption and translation.

 

The Greek word “arche,” which is translated “beginning” in this verse, may have either an active or passive sense according to the context.  The passive form would indicate that Jesus was the first created creature.  But this is utterly contrary to scores of verses which portray Christ as eternal and co-existent with the Father (see as examples:  John 1:1-3; 10:30; Hebrews 1:8; Colossians 2:9).  This means that the term “arche” must be accepted in the active sense, which indicates that Christ was the One Who initiated the work of creation (as seen in the verses already given).  In other words, Christ is the “Beginner,” or “Originator” of creation; and not creation’s first creature.  He is the One Who is acting, rather than being acted upon.  Instead of being the One Who was first created, He is the first One Who created.

 

 

O) 1914

 

 

Jehovah’s Witnesses come to this date by using Nebuchadnezzar’s dream in Daniel, Chapter 4.  I will not break that down.  Suffice it to say, that they take a date used for Jerusalem, and not for Nebuchadnezzar -- which the prophecy is really about -- of 2,520 years from there to get to 1914 A.D.  My questions for Jehovah’s Witnesses are:  The prophecy is exclusively for Nebuchadnezzar.  How can you then start your 2,520 years from Jerusalem?  False dating right there!  Next:  Where else in Scripture can you demonstrate (“a day for a year prophecy”) that a prophecy that applies to an individual also applies for future revelation?  Nowhere!  Such as Jesus being “three days and three nights” not ever meaning 3 years.

 

Ah but wait!  JW’s then use the Daniel, Chapter 7, prophecy of 3 1/2 years, which is 1,260 prophetic days, and only use 3 1/2 years to get to 1918 A.D.  This flies against your logic of using 2,520 years for prophecy, but not using 1,260 days for year prophecy.  Your inconsistency is mind boggling!  What happened to the “day for a year” principle when it is applicable?  Your excuse that the two time periods were first expressed in months, then in days, is ridiculous, because both work out to be 1,260 days/years.  Be consistent please.

 

Plus, in Daniel, Chapter 12, you do it again, where 1,290 days for some reason started in 1919, ending in 1922.  First of all, your starting date CANNOT be verified, and your “day for a year” prophetic time is discarded, when it is totally in play.  Get out of this cult and find out the true prophetic meaning of these years.  You have gone with the exception to the rule too often.

 

In Daniel 8:14, you clearly state that this is a “day for a year” prophecy.  Yet you again ignore the Biblical rule, use your own calculations, meaning 2,300 equals 6 years, 4 months, and 20 days, bringing you to somewhere in the 1930’s (1938).  Nothing happened Biblically in 1914, 1919, 1922, or 1938, and you should know that by now.  You do the same thing with the 1,335 days in Daniel, Chapter 12.  The one prophecy that gets you into the 1900’s, the 2,520 days, yet the other prophecies you do not apply a “day for a year” for any of the other prophetic dates; which Biblically of course they do apply!  And since the Daniel, Chapter 4, rule of a “day for a year” is correct, then you must apply all of the other prophetic times to all of the other time periods.  In other words, be consistent!

 

 

P) IN CONCLUSION

 

 

“New World Translation” translators, please STOP changing you mistranslated already translation.  And JW’s, please realize you have been lied to (dupped).  Start with a correct translation, the “King James Version” (It has Its problems; but for over 400 years most if not all are known with a good commentary).  See my Bible Study:  “BIBLE VERSIONS AFTER 1881,” which would include the “NWT.”

 

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